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First time use of FMVT

Former Member
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Little background :

1) We are on EA-PS 60405

2) Went live in 2009

3) Never executed FMVT and considering it from this year

I have done the following towards facilitating FMVT :

a) Maintained balance update in a fund master data.

b) Defined C/F item category

c) Maintained c/f item category in all of the commitment item master data by doing a mass update.

I tried running FMVT thereafter and it throws an error of FBCF derivation rule error (error code - FMCF803). Something to do with Reassignment derivation strategy (FMYC).

The funny thing is when I do a reassignment derivation trace, the trace kicks in and shows me two steps 1) Initialize commitment item and 2) derive summarization commitment item(function module), whereas there are no such steps in the reassignment derivation. I dont know where the system picks up these two steps in the trace. The steps in FMYC are 1) Target funds center initialization and 2) fund to fund center (rule).

On the trace, under initialize commitment item step, there receiver commitment item before is listed but there is no commitment item after. the field name is target_commit_item. The FMVT stops with FMCF803 error "The value BLANK/SPACE is not valid; acct assgmt element Commitment Item (strategy FBCF)"

I can resolve this error by maintaining a commitment item against a year in "Define Carryforward item Category" under Closing operations for Fund balance carryfoward. But then I cannot maintain multiple commitment items under one year. I dont want the receiver commitment item to be just one. I want whatever the sender commitment item to be the receiver commitment item. I would want them to be same.

So my questions to you are :

1) what are the downside of not doing a fund balance c/f?

2) Do we have to do fund balance c/f?

3) What if we dont do? What will be impacted going forward? It has not affected any business operations for the past 3 years.

4) We havent activated multi-year budget. How will that affect the fund balance c/f?

5) We have payment budget(9A), does that mean I have to run RFFMS200(FMF0) first before running SAPFMVTR(FMVT)?

6) If yes, then I will have to do all the prerequisites of FMF0 - Update profile to Area, settings for payment transfer, etc etc!

7) How do it make the receiver commitment item to the same as the sender commitment item?

😎 How come the FMYC trace of FMVT bring in 2 different steps than what is maintained in FMYC? Or am i looking at the wrong place?

9) We have never done fund-balance c/f. since we Went live in 2009. Does that mean I have to do FMVT for every single prior years before doing the current year? If no, then what do i do?

10) What will be enterprise-wide impact of doing this considering that we have not done this before?

Your help and insight is greatly appreciated.

Thanks,

Nate.

3 REPLIES 3

former_member184992
Active Contributor
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Hi Nate,

You should check if one of your derivation rules can be the cause of your issue.

You can activate the Trace tool for FMDERIVE, and retest your issue. By the way, this is a customer tool where you can

analyze the derivation log and find out how the Account Assignments objects are determined.

See note 666322 "Derivation tool in the FM: Trace function" for more info.

Best Regards,

Vanessa.

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Hi Vanessa,

Nope, its not FMDERIVE. Thats clear as well, it doesnt have those two steps the FMYC trace brings up!

thanks,

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